Most Famous Somali Sheikh is in Hot Water again against Somali Female Politician

Not really. What is considered Marital rape isn’t even criminalized in many countries.

I usually don’t quote Wikipedia as it’s unreliable but this picture below is quite informative:

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LOL

Funny, how Christian countries have rights to protect women and children from abuse, but "Muslim" countries have no such laws.

Well done Muslim men, for leading us into darkness.
 
Wow and wow indeed @anonimo.

I mean he deleted that part, but talk about spreading misinformation. How is it possible for man not to be able to sexually abuse his wife? What’s next, a man can’t physically abuse his wife? He can’t emotionally abuse his wife? I mean that doesn’t leave scars nor is it easy to prove….

It’s this lack of common sense and downright lack of empathy that women have to deal with.
I have not deleted anything.

I simply asserted that just like rape, the terminology 'spousal sexual abuse' is non-existent in Sharia Law according to my knowledge. If you or anyone else can prove otherwise, then do so!
 
That is a slippery slope as before the 20th century beating one’s wife was very much legal in a lot of countries. We shouldn’t be using laws as examples as much of human history women especially in the West, women weren’t even allowed to fully represent themselves legally.

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I believe it is wrong for a man to sexually abuse his wife or cause any harm or pain to his wife. If she’s disrespectful and doesn’t engage in intimacy and uses it as a weapon then the ideal thing for a man to do is either get a second wife or divorce her.
 
I have not deleted anything.

I simply asserted that just like rape, the terminology 'spousal sexual abuse' is non-existent in Sharia Law according to my knowledge. If you or anyone else can prove otherwise, then do so!

Your fellow MAN, said sexual violence does occur in a marriage.

@AdoonkaAlle

Screenshot 2022-12-09 at 21.53.24.png
 
I have not deleted anything.

I simply asserted that just like rape, the terminology 'spousal sexual abuse' is non-existent in Sharia Law according to my knowledge. If you or anyone else can prove otherwise, then do so!
That isn’t true.

You’re making things up right now and have no proof that sexual abuse is a made up term in the Sharia. A man forcing himself and being violent is most definitely sexually abusing and that is very much recognizable in the Sharia.

There are actual clear Hadiths in which the Prophet s.a.w tells men not to jump on women like animals. There is a Hadith in which the Prophet s.a.w instructs men on how to approach their wives in a dignified manner and here you are saying that the Sharia doesn’t recognize abuse.

bisinka, simply keep quiet if you don’t know what you’re talking about.

A have a question and only answer this please, do you believe a man is legally allowed to force and even use violence to coerce his wife?
 
Your fellow MAN, said sexual violence does exist in a marriage.

@AdoonkaAlle
He is not speaking from a legalistic perspective which I was. I have already used the word 'rape' to describe a man forcing himself upon his wife. I hazarded a guess based on the fact that 'Rape' cannot be not used in Sharia Law because it does not meet the legal requirements. Similarly, how can it b proven that a man has sexually assaulted his wife in Sharia Law if spousal rape in itself is non-existent in Sharia?

In Islamic Law, he does not face the punishment for rape. This is the crux of the matter regarding this law and it's concept of rape regarding marriage. There is no judicial precedent in Islamic Law where a man can be charged with raping his wife and has never been an issue in Islam's 1400+ History. It is impossible to prove a man raped his wife in Sharia Law as it does not meet the four witnesses Zina condition etc. as any coerced sexual act will occur in the privacy of one's home and the fact that they are already married renders all else redundant.

Men are however not expected to rape a disobedient wife as the Hadith evidence indicates Allah will be displeased with a woman until she submits to her husband and the Curse of the Angels is upon them if they refuse their husband's demand for sex.

The pressure to codify this new rape law is not an organic societal development nor does it have any religious foundation hence why many in Somali society are opposed to it. No man made innovative law can have precedence over Islamic Law regarding this issue!


That isn’t true.

You’re making things up right now and have no proof that sexual abuse is a made up term in the Sharia. A man forcing himself and being violent is most definitely sexually abusing and that is very much recognizable in the Sharia.

There actual clear Hadiths in which the Prophet s.a.w tells men not to jump on women like animals. There is a Hadith in which the Prophet s.a.w instructs men on how to approach their wives in a dignified manner and here you are saying that the Sharia doesn’t recognize abuse.

bisinka, simply keep quiet if you don’t know what you’re talking about.

A have a question and only answer this please, do you believe a man is legally allowed to force and even use violence to coerce his wife?

Look at the above reply.

As for sexual abuse in Sharia Law, provide evidence for it being used in Sharia Law terminology?
 

AdoonkaAlle

Ragna qowl baa xira, dumarna meher baa xira.
This was your post below, so I ask you, what is the punishment for 'sexual violence in marriage'?

Has there ever been a case such as this?

The same as those of spousal abuse, domestic violence etc it depends on the nature & severity of it, it's up to the judge to enforce any discretionary punishment applicable to the level of violation that has taken place.

Now can you answer why you refuse to accept the islamic view of rape ?
 
He is not speaking from a legalistic perspective which I was. I have already used the word 'rape' to describe a man forcing himself upon his wife. I hazarded a guess based on the fact that 'Rape' cannot be not used in Sharia Law because it does not meet the legal requirements. Similarly, how can it b proven that a man has sexually assaulted his wife in Sharia Law if spousal rape in itself is non-existent in Sharia?
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Look at the above reply.

As for sexual abuse in Sharia Law, provide evidence for it being used in Sharia Law terminology?
It comes under the heading of harming one’s spouse. Any harm is recognized.
 
The same as those of spousal abuse, domestic violence etc it depends on the nature & severity of it, it's up to the judge to enforce any discretionary punishment applicable to the level of violation that has taken place.

Now can you answer why you refuse to accept the islamic view of rape ?

I don't accept the notion that a man cannot sexual abuse his wife.
I have no issues with Islam, I have a problem with Muslim men, there is a difference.
 
@AdoonkaAlle, this is what is causing the confusion Authobillah.

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You are making up lies walaal.

I was clear in my statement:

I leave it to the scholars when it comes to the semantics of it, I am non the wiser as to what the legal precedents are regarding the different forms of spousal abuse and the terminology employed. If I was to hazard a guess, it would not be called sexual abuse as it is legally impossible for a man to sexually assault his wife in Sharia Law. Ask the other knowledgeable folk on here, they might be aware of a legal precedent that I am ignorant of.
I have clearly stated that I was referencing my ignorance of Sharia Law concepts surrounding spousal abuse and not passing off my calculated assumption as fact. What legal precedent do you have that states a man can sexually abuse his wife? What are the Sharia requirements for sexual abuse? Is it any different than the requirements for Zina? These are the questions I had in mind when I made the above statement.

Are you or anyone else in this website qualified enough to answer the above?
 
The same as those of spousal abuse, domestic violence etc it depends on the nature & severity of it, it's up to the judge to enforce any discretionary punishment applicable to the level of violation that has taken place.

Now can you answer why you refuse to accept the islamic view of rape ?
Adoonka I think it’s a bit obvious as to why she’s confused.
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Adoonka I think it’s a bit obvious as to why she’s confused.
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Abayo, at least AdoonkaAlle said that sexual violence can occur in a marriage which is a relief.

But the other debaters, seem to lack basic empathy and cannot even express the fact that a woman being forced is evil and immoral. This lack of empathy and even clarity, is why we have ignoramuses who think they have purchased a sex slave after the nikaax paper is signed.
 
You are making up lies walaal.

I was clear in my statement:


I have clearly stated that I was referencing my ignorance of Sharia Law concepts surrounding spousal abuse and not passing off my calculated assumption as fact. What legal precedent do you have that states a man can sexually abuse his wife?
Through harm and many scholars talk about men not harming women. If the encounter causes harm and issues for the wife then it is indeed abuse and she can pettion to the courts the same way she could with DV. In most cases of sexual abuse there is an element of DV any way which makes it even easier to prove.
What are the Sharia requirements for sexual abuse? Is it any different than the requirements for Zina?
Of course it is. Zina is outside of marriage and one is within marriage.
These are the questions I had in mind when I made the above statement.

Are you or anyone else in this website qualified enough to answer the above?
I’ll send you a really good article that tacklers it.
 
LOL

Funny, how Christian countries have rights to protect women and children from abuse, but "Muslim" countries have no such laws.

Well done Muslim men, for leading us into darkness.
This is because many “Christian” countries are only Christian in name only and are in fact, secular semi-Atheistic nations who’s entire moral framework is secular-liberalism. If these countries were conservative Christian countries with the church as it’s authority then it’s unlikely that a lot of the laws we see today would have been passed.

Either way, harming one’s wife is undoubtedly a sin and based on the harm principle that is apart of our religion and the level of harm caused, Muslim societies can look into the matter on a case-by-case situation and implement laws to protect woman in abusive marriages.
 
This is because many “Christian” countries are only Christian in name only and are in fact, secular semi-Atheistic nations who’s entire moral framework is secular-liberalism. If these countries were conservative Christian countries with the church as it’s authority then it’s unlikely that a lot of the laws we see today would have been passed.

Either way, harming one’s wife is undoubtedly a sin and based on the harm principle that is apart of our religion and the level of harm caused, Muslim societies can look into the matter on a case-by-case situation and implement laws to protect woman in abusive marriages.

That we can agree on.
 

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