It's even more absurd when you consider that Muslim wives are cursed by the angels all night when they refuse to have sex with their husbands, yet he wants us to believe the slave girl can do so all fine and dandy!
Reer buraaq waan kaa dhaaley round and round we go on that muslamic carousel I want of damn it Please show me where it says that in the hadith you quoted!
ASK YOURSELF: why did he feel guilty if he had consensual sex with his maidservant? It's permissible to do that.
1. The first extract from Imam Malik is not addressing a person who owns a slave and forces himself on his own slave, but rather the quote is regarding a person who rapes a slave that doesn't belong to him.
i'll be honest, i cant really say as a.) i'm not a woman and b.) im so far removed from that era and indeed any era of slavery to have any kind of real insight on that
Several things wrong with this. You're operating with the assumption that Islam is consistent. No one believes that except Muslims like yourself. So you're already off base, and any conclusions you may draw are inherently invalid. Secondly, the second premise (yes, it's a premise despite you not labelling it as such, mostly because your knowledge of logic obviously lacks foundation) is questionable because whether raping slaves is considered a mistreatment at all in Islam is already under question. Not to mention that the first premise itself is stupid because slavery is itself a mistreatment. Your attempts to use logic are futile, and don't make any sense at all.Premise: it’s forbidden to mistreat a servant
Rape is a form of mistreatment.
Therefore, rape is not permissible.
Pure deductive reasoning. Like really, you can't go wrong with that.
If rape wasn't considered mistreatment in Islam, it would be permissible for a husband to rape his wife
I'm pretty sure I said 'raping slaves'. It appears now you've lost the ability to read as well.
Mistreatment is mistreatment.
I don't know. I'm not going to try and speculate. But it definitely doesn't say what you expect us to believe it says.ASK YOURSELF: why did he feel guilty if he had consensual sex with his maidservant? It's permissible to do that.
This was during the reign of Umar ibn al-Khattab (RA).
People have been having consensual sex with their maidservants since the time of the Prophet (SAW). It’s permitted in the Qur’an.
Nah you're definitely trolling me
The words are clear. He "felt guilty"... Why would a Muslim feel guilty for something that's permissible?
Nonsense. What I said was that it's: "questionable because whether raping slaves is considered a mistreatment at all in Islam is already under question." Clearly talking about rape when it comes to slaves, not rape in general. Have you lost the plot or something? This is hilarious!Mistreatment is mistreatment.
You were talking about whether rape is considered mistreatment in Islam.
As I said, show me the evidence that he raped her. Don't hide behind speculations.The words are clear. He "felt guilty"... Why would a Muslim feel guilty for something that's permissible?
i stand corrected on the second one. pretty sure Imam Malik is referring to the rape of any woman there, which is why he includes both free and captured women. the only difference is the amount of money paid, which shows that rape is forbidden no matter who it is
Yeah, let's use pseudo-psychological readings to interpret hadiths. You're not very bright, are you?Yh ok. He felt guilty for engaging in a permissible act.
I've omitted an important part of that hadith; I'll highlight it below:
