Im merely using logic, and this isn’t an inferiority complex. Why is the dominate language that of a group that isn’t the majority? How does that make sense?
It’s the same way I laugh at the Banadiri poster who believes that cadcads owned Xamar when that doesn’t make sense.
If you can’t answer a question simply say it without attacking me. I know I could be wrong and this is mostly educational for me. But why would the Geledi empire take on the Barwaani language if their subjects weren’t mostly Barwaani? I’m not denying that ethnic Somalis probably were the ones governing ect so how could that be an inferiority complex?!