Is Modern Judaism a form of White Supremacy?

[The alchemist]

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The Jews have noteworthy ancestry from that part of the world. Their Y-DNA and mtDNA show this influence, but there is very little documentation other than oral traditions that the Jews kept as private traditions. I remember seeing a debate with Noam Chomsky and a Zionist where the scholar stated that he has Khazarian roots and referenced his lineage from a religious tradition, even saying his part of Jewish ancestry traces to that part of the world, while the other guy claimed it was "anti-Semitic". Although guys like Shlomo Sand were incorrect in specifics (regarding DNA and the significance of Khazar legacy in today's Jewry), part of his historical accounting of Jews' presence in that region is correct; Khazarians did have some influence and even some weak autosomal and noteworthy uniparental descent.

Why they have Scythian-type lineages underscores that there is a lot that was not written down. Remember, Ashkenazis have a noteworthy Eastern Asian signature. The notion of this being a Silk Road genetics is a strange explainer because it reinforces the theory to the right time and place. You're not in the Silk Road in Germany, if you understand what I am saying. The Silk Road trade included the regions we talk about. You see how this contradicts. Those guys with that explanation want their cake and eat it too. Can't be that greedy and unreasonable, lol.

Look at the dates and the regional associations; they match:

Even if we had no presence presented through evidence for the sake of argument (I'll explain under why this is false), somehow it came together genetically.

On the matter of evidence of presence, we know of pockets of Jews that existed in that broader region since antiquity, so the claim that they were not present is frankly untrue (irrespective of documentation). These people were around that region and most definitely in separate waves. There was a Jewish trade presence in the region since then, down to before the Khazar period. These people were in that region, most definitely. My core claim is not grounded on a Silk Road association, but it does not exclude it. I am just frankly saying the undergirded elements are present for this story to rationally unfold. If people have other explanations, that's cool. I also stated it is daming that we have Jewish descended peoples that had Turkic roots. I think that is literally an example of such a union to say the Turkic and Jews did not associate or mix.

 

[Juke]

The Jews have noteworthy ancestry from that part of the world. Their Y-DNA and mtDNA show this influence, but there is very little documentation other than oral traditions that the Jews kept as private traditions. I remember seeing a debate with Noam Chomsky and a Zionist where the scholar stated that he has Khazarian roots and referenced his lineage from a religious tradition, even saying his part of Jewish ancestry traces to that part of the world, while the other guy claimed it was "anti-Semitic". Although guys like Shlomo Sand were incorrect in specifics (regarding DNA and the significance of Khazar legacy in today's Jewry), part of his historical accounting of Jews' presence in that region is correct; Khazarians did have some influence and even some weak autosomal and noteworthy uniparental descent.

Why they have Scythian-type lineages underscores that there is a lot that was not written down. Remember, Ashkenazis have a noteworthy Eastern Asian signature. The notion of this being a Silk Road genetics is a strange explainer because it reinforces the theory to the right time and place. You're not in the Silk Road in Germany, if you understand what I am saying. The Silk Road trade included the regions we talk about. You see how this contradicts. Those guys with that explanation want their cake and eat it too. Can't be that greedy and unreasonable, lol.

Look at the dates and the regional associations; they match:
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Even if we had no presence presented through evidence for the sake of argument (I'll explain under why this is false), somehow it came together genetically.

On the matter of evidence of presence, we know of pockets of Jews that existed in that broader region since antiquity, so the claim that they were not present is frankly untrue (irrespective of documentation). These people were around that region and most definitely in separate waves. There was a Jewish trade presence in the region since then, down to before the Khazar period. These people were in that region, most definitely. My core claim is not grounded on a Silk Road association, but it does not exclude it. I am just frankly saying the undergirded elements are present for this story to rationally unfold. If people have other explanations, that's cool. I also stated it is daming that we have Jewish descended peoples that had Turkic roots. I think that is literally an example of such a union to say the Turkic and Jews did not associate or mix.

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[The alchemist]

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The Jews were always demographically minor and specialized (they were not the village Jews found in Eastern Europe later). I think their presence was significant enough, though more likely transient, as they integrated with the lifeways of the people they lived amongst. I also think some Jews migrated or assimilated, eventually. That is why you see Jewish lineages being completely ethnic Ukrainian and Ukrainian lineages in Jews that moved west.

Then you have other ones, either remaining or integrating with historic Jewish groups that existed. That explains why Turkics in Europe end up with Jewish influence. Also, we know the whole of Europe experienced a few genetic changes through convulsive migrational influences of people in general. Those Austrian samples, for example, dont match modern ones due to their basal proportions; that entire region saw a demographic shift.

Scythians were a diverse bunch. There could have been migration from the Bactria region, then mediated through Iran. Those people would originally be Iranic-Steppe, genetically. It could have reached the Zagros or the Armenian border zones. This lineage may have been of such an earlier point of origin, but we still see much later patterns coinciding with a Ukrainian radiance that retained ghost retention from medieval population relations, which carry stratifications in key periods among individuals in the broader region.

Some of those Caucasus peoples definitely had some relations with the Ashkenazis. I really pointed at the hats, which strangely overlapped. That shit is not Slavic or Germanic, I don't care what people say. Often times people gaslight in these topics. I have some vague memory that some random mountain village in Turkey or in the Caucasus was called Ashkenaz or something. I still to this day don't know what to think of that. We're likely dealing with indirect linguistic elements on that one.

One text that sort of coincides with what I said about how the Khazars had influence with Jews was written by a 10th-century Khazarian Jew who explains the movements of Jews into Khazaria:

This fits perfectly with my theory. A clear demic diffusion through migration of Jews that eventually were afforded an elite, top-down influence spread the Jewish faith and nested themselves in those relations, diffusing congruently with Khazarian patterns. The author state Jews fled pagan Armenia (it rings true that Jews existed in polytheist Armenia) to get away from paganism, then moved to Khazaria where they integrated but could project their religion. Later you had Jews come from Byzantine, Mesopotamia, the entire Iranic region, etc -- fitting with the explanation that the region attracted cosmopolitanism but also among Jews.

Proselytization was more common during ancient times. It was mainly during the late medieval period when Jews created new barriers for entry, exclusivizing their intra-relional privileges. This gate-keeping effort was not universal throughout the times. As stated in my earlier post, somehow the Jews convinced the southern Semite elites to become Jews, and so the whole kingdom became adherents of their faith. As that occurred, the ones with real ancestry completely mixed out with the proselytized. We read complex efforts of proselytization and condemning such acts in the Jewish Roman contexts. This process had precedent in the Levant itself, a few centuries before the Common Era.

Early Jewish historians from the 1800s noted that the Jewish character of Khazaria was sourced in its core from an elite perspective (this coincides exactly with what I said), describing a the general public as pagan, Tengrism, Christian, or Muslim and, of course, like shown earlier, syncretism. These socio-cultural and economic through-lines made it so that genetics and religion changed as people mixed, sort of like an archaic concept of national identity, making what appears to be discontinuity, retaining a complete transitional coherence. I.e., why I think those Austrian guys were of a Khazarian and other Turkic culture-complex origin that converged with the Avar form.

I think part of the earliest Jewish influence on the Khazarian elites that accompanied religious influence involved at least some minor gene flow through intermarriage in the beginning, and later gave ground to more such associations because of shared religious grounds.