How Come Slaves Weren’t granted Freedom After they converted to Islam?

[Unicorn]

Its one of the sour parts of islam. Allah made slavery halal and said hey u can have concubines and u dont have to marry them plus the 4 wives and knowing men u think they wanted this practice to end? Thats why it lasted and still lasts in some parts today. We cant understand it so i dont think about it.For a human to own another human and god still say they are both equal to him is above me lol

 

[Som]

I’ve been thinking about this? How can another muslim hold another muslim as a “slave”? There’s the whole you can’t go and enslave a muslim but if a muslim converts to islam they aren’t granted automatic freedom?

I just came back from Taraweeh and I’d like an answer.
Don’t say because then everyone would’ve converted. During ottoman conquest, if gaals converted to Islam they wouldn’t have to pay that extra tax, and that’s why many converted. So why doesn’t that apply to slavery? Despite islamic rules on slavery, arabs were very brutal slaveholders and we can see that till this day, so why weren’t Muslim converts granted freedom?



Also non muslim in muslim lands couldn’t be enslaved aka dhimmis. I would say the majority of slaves held by muslims were illegally enslaved because arabs would go and attack and steal black and sometimes european slaves like literal kidnapping which is unislamic. Attacking random villages in southeast Africa isn’t no jihad.

Arabs man….our whole image is ruined because of them. Not slapping every other arab on site is my personal jihad, my internal struggle. Ya allah swt why do they have such a big population? Somalis deserve to be 400 million and arabs 30 million or less.

Because freeing a slave was never obligatory but considered a good deed. This is were Muslim Shaykh lie to people, they minimize slavery by saying freeing slaves was the most beloved act by God but they never say it's not obligatory. Fasting in Ramadan is obligatory, Salah is obligatory but freeing slaves is not.
There are sources that mention how Muslim Arabs enslaved other Muslim Africans who were born Muslim. In the middle ages the king of kanem Bornu (present day Chad) complained to surrounding Arab nations who raided his subjects to enslave them. Also in the east coast of Africa it is believed Arabs purposefully avoided spreading Islam among the interior tribes out of fear they wouldn't be enslavable anymore if they converted in mass.

 

[Som]

Obviously people will enslave you if you don't protect yourself or if you don't have a strong country to look after your people. But mot african slaves were sold by other africans, so I wouldn't blame the colonisers if the people keep selling each other.

This is a bad argument. It's like saying most Muslims are oppressed by other Muslims so we should have no right to blame America, Israel and Europe for imperialism and oppression in muslim lands

 

[Som]

Muslim could only slave people they were warring with, am I correct or not? This is basically how I remember the main criteria for a person to be slaved.

The issue is that Arabs abused this concept, they would find excuses to fight with innocent people.

 

[Odayga_Jabuuti]

This is a bad argument. It's like saying most Muslims are oppressed by other Muslims so we should have no right to blame America, Israel and Europe for imperialism and oppression in muslim lands

This is partially true, colonists always use the division inside a certain group to dominate them. So the blame isn't always on other people it's also on yourself.

 

[Som]

This is partially true, colonists always use the division inside a certain group to dominate them. So the blame isn't always on other people it's also on yourself.

All oppressed people are partially to blame because of elements within themselves who collaborate with oppressors but this should not be an alibi to absolve the true oppressors. Imagine if people said the oppression of Arabs in Palestine is their own fault because Arab nations are normalizing relations with Israel, that is partially true but still doesn't absolve the Israeli authorities from their human rights violations

 

[Odayga_Jabuuti]

All oppressed people are partially to blame because of elements within themselves who collaborate with oppressors but this should not be an alibi to absolve the true oppressors. Imagine if people said the oppression of Arabs in Palestine is their own fault because Arab nations are normalizing relations with Israel, that is partially true but still doesn't absolve the Israeli authorities from their human rights violations

Israel/Palestine used to be Ottoman lands for 300 years, but the british army which consisted of mostly arabs kicked the ottomans out. The british created the British Mandate of Palestine which later became Israel. Another example of colonialists using division to conquer.
I'm not going to say that it's entirely the collaborator's fault, but they do share the fault.